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Follow-up On This Month's ArticleWard: Nice article this month. I need a clarification. If I understand it right, in general, a loan used to 'purchase' a house is exempt (unless it's backed by FHA/VA) from any future deficiency judgments. However, if I refinance to take advantage of today's low rates, then the new loan is considered a 'hard money' loan (as defined in your article) and therefore subject to possible future deficiency judgment but only if the lender/beneficiary chooses to foreclosure judicially. Have I got that right? I ask because your article doesn't directly reference a new refinance loan. I can see this as a point that I can use in talking with someone in foreclosure. That is, if they choose to let their home go to foreclosure instead of selling to an investor...like me, I can inform them that their troubles may not be over after the sale and that the lender may still come after them for the deficiency. Thanks, Follow Ups:
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